I know that x can never be zero in inverse variation functions, but can y ever be zero?
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Could we ever have the equation y = 0/x?
Yes, this equation is possible. But, seeing as 0 divided by anything will always equal 0, this equation is basically y=0. For any value of x, y is zero.
This would be a flat line at y=0 if it was graphed. The line would be on the x-axis, since that is where y=0 is located on the coordinate grid.
What a great question!
Let's say we are looking at the equation y=3/x . If we let y=0, then we'd have 0=3/x.
Now is there anything we can divide 3 by and get 0? There is not. Thus, y cannot be zero for an inverse variation.
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What a great question!
Let's say we are looking at the equation y=3/x . If we let y=0, then we'd have 0=3/x.
Now is there anything we can divide 3 by and get 0? There is not. Thus, y cannot be zero for an inverse variation.